HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.
Question 2 of 5
Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.
Question 3 of 5
A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.
Question 4 of 5
Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.
Question 5 of 5
An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should counsel the client on the importance of notifying partners about HIV status while respecting confidentiality. Mandatory partner notification laws vary by jurisdiction, so option A cannot be universally applied. Breaching patient confidentiality, as suggested in option C, is unethical. Reporting the client's status to the health department without consent, as in option D, is not appropriate as HIV status is confidential information and is not automatically reported as a sexually transmitted case.