HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit and reports that July 10 was the first day of her last menstrual period. Using Nagele's Rule, the nurse calculates the estimated date of birth for the client to be _________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nagele's Rule is a common method used to estimate the due date. To calculate it, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. In this case, if the last menstrual period started on July 10, subtracting 3 months (April) and adding 7 days gives an estimated due date of April 17. This is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the Nagele's Rule calculation method.
Question 2 of 9
Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chromosomes are structures composed of DNA and genes. Genes are the functional segments within chromosomes that encode specific traits and characteristics. The other choices ('nuclei,' 'nodes,' 'capillaries') do not accurately describe the segments found within chromosomes and are unrelated to their structure or function.
Question 3 of 9
A newborn who was born post-term is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant.' In cases where the newborn is born post-term, the mismatched Rh factor between the mother (Rh-negative) and the infant (Rh-positive) can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis. This can result in jaundice, anemia, and other serious complications for the infant. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the mismatched Rh factor scenario that poses a risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hypnosis can be an effective method of pain control during labor, especially if practiced during the prenatal period. Choice A is not specific to hypnosis and may not be directly related. Choice B is not essential for hypnosis and may not always be required. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis has been shown to be beneficial for managing labor pain when done correctly, making it an inappropriate option to include in the teaching.
Question 5 of 9
A woman who is 38 weeks gestation is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absent patellar reflexes. Absent patellar reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory depression or cardiac arrest. Dizziness while standing (choice A) is common in pregnancy but does not specifically indicate magnesium toxicity. Sinus tachycardia (choice B) can be a normal response to magnesium sulfate but does not indicate toxicity. Lower back pain (choice C) is common in pregnancy and not specifically associated with magnesium toxicity.
Question 6 of 9
A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.
Question 7 of 9
A client who delivered a healthy newborn an hour ago asked the nurse when she can go home. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most critical information for the nurse to provide the client is ensuring that there is no significant vaginal bleeding before discharge. This is vital to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Options A, B, and C are important aspects of postpartum care, but assessing and managing vaginal bleeding takes precedence due to its potential seriousness.
Question 8 of 9
Do sebaceous glands cause a developing organism to grow arms or wings, skin, or scales?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: False. Sebaceous glands are associated with the skin's oil production and have no role in the development of limbs or body coverings. Sebaceous glands primarily produce sebum, an oily substance that lubricates and waterproofs the skin and hair. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sebaceous glands do not influence the growth of arms, wings, skin, or scales in a developing organism.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following pairs share 100% of their genes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Monozygotic (MZ) twins. Monozygotic twins, also known as identical twins, share 100% of their genes because they originate from the same fertilized egg that splits into two. Fraternal twins (choice B), also known as dizygotic (DZ) twins (choice C), result from two separate fertilized eggs and share approximately 50% of their genes. Biovular twins (choice A) is not a term used in genetics and does not describe a type of twinning.