HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client admitted to the hospital with advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism is exhibiting ascites and edema. Which pathophysiological mechanisms should the nurse identify as responsible for the third spacing symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In advanced liver failure related to chronic alcoholism, ascites and edema occur due to multiple pathophysiological mechanisms. Portal hypertension contributes to the development of ascites by increasing pressure in the portal venous system. Sodium and water retention exacerbate fluid accumulation in the third space. Decreased serum albumin levels lead to reduced oncotic pressure, contributing to the movement of fluid into the interstitial spaces. Abnormal protein metabolism further disrupts fluid balance. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are correct in this scenario, making choice D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C alone do not fully explain the comprehensive pathophysiological mechanisms involved in the development of ascites and edema in this clinical context.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This is crucial to help prevent esophageal irritation. Option A is correct as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, not lie down. Option B is incorrect and a duplicate of Option A.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a cast complains of numbness and tingling in the affected limb. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a cast experiencing numbness and tingling in the affected limb is to check for tightness of the cast. Numbness and tingling can indicate compromised circulation, and a tight cast may be causing this. Checking the cast for tightness is essential to ensure it is not impeding circulation. Elevating the limb, applying ice, or notifying the physician can be subsequent actions depending on the assessment findings after checking the cast. Elevating the limb might help improve circulation, applying ice is not indicated for numbness and tingling, and notifying the physician can be done if the issue persists after addressing the immediate concern of cast tightness.
Question 5 of 9
A client reports feeling anxious and having trouble sleeping lately. What non-pharmacological intervention should the nurse suggest first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct non-pharmacological intervention the nurse should suggest first for a client experiencing anxiety and sleep issues is practicing relaxation techniques before bed. Relaxation techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, or mindfulness meditation can help reduce anxiety levels and promote better sleep naturally. Starting an exercise program (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not provide immediate relief for anxiety and sleep problems. Keeping a sleep diary (Choice B) can help identify patterns but does not directly address anxiety. Using sleep-inducing medications (Choice D) should be considered only after non-pharmacological interventions have been tried.
Question 6 of 9
After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
Question 7 of 9
The wife is observed shaving her husband's beard with a safety razor. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband. The rationale behind this is that the wife is already performing the task, so abrupt interference may lead to potential harm or emotional distress. It is crucial for the nurse to carefully observe the situation and assess for any safety concerns. While teaching proper techniques (Choice B) is important, it can be addressed later in a non-critical manner to prevent skin irritation and injury. Advising to shave against the hair growth (Choice A) may cause skin irritation and cuts. Although demonstrating the correct procedure (Choice D) may be helpful, it is essential to consider the current dynamics and respect the wife's autonomy in caring for her husband.
Question 8 of 9
In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.