HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child with sickle cell anemia develops severe chest pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. The nurse's first action is to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a child with sickle cell anemia experiencing severe chest pain, fever, cough, and dyspnea, the priority action is to suspect acute chest syndrome, a life-threatening complication. The nurse's first action should be to notify the practitioner for immediate evaluation and intervention. Administering 100% oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the initial priority. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should not precede notifying the practitioner, as addressing the underlying cause is crucial. The symptoms described are more indicative of acute chest syndrome than a stroke, so notifying the practitioner for chest syndrome (Choice C) takes precedence over suspecting a stroke (Choice D).
Question 2 of 9
When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.
Question 3 of 9
A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant's discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.
Question 4 of 9
When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, it is crucial to administer most of the volume during the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. This rapid administration is essential to stabilize the child's condition. Choices A and B are incorrect because the initial fluid replacement in burns typically involves administering crystalloids, not colloids, and the fluid replacement is generally calculated based on the extent of the burn injury, not the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr is not recommended in burn patients; instead, urine output should be monitored to achieve 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion.
Question 5 of 9
Why should a nurse plan an evening snack for a child receiving Novolin N insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Novolin N insulin peaks in the evening, which can lead to hypoglycemia during the night. Providing an evening snack helps to counteract the late insulin activity and prevent hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the primary reason for the evening snack is not to encourage adherence to the diet. Choice B is incorrect as the snack is not primarily for immediate energy use. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of the snack is not to help the child gain weight but to manage blood sugar levels.
Question 6 of 9
What foods are appropriate for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Macaroni and cheese and Cheerios are appropriate choices for a 30-month-old toddler on a regular diet. These foods are easy to chew, digest, and are generally well-liked by toddlers. Option A, a hamburger with bun and grapes, may be difficult for a toddler to handle due to the size of the hamburger and grapes pose a choking hazard. Option B, chicken fingers and french fries, may be too greasy and processed for a toddler's developing digestive system. Option C, hot dog with bun and potato chips, is also not ideal as hot dogs can be a choking hazard and potato chips are high in salt and may not provide adequate nutrition.
Question 7 of 9
A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant's discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Projectile vomiting is the hallmark clinical manifestation of pyloric stenosis in infants. In pyloric stenosis, the muscle surrounding the opening between the stomach and the small intestine thickens, leading to obstruction. This obstruction causes forceful, projectile vomiting, which is typically non-bilious (does not contain bile) and occurs after feedings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diarrhea, constipation, and abdominal distension are not typical symptoms of pyloric stenosis.
Question 9 of 9
What is one of the most important factors that a healthcare professional must consider when parents of a toddler request to be present at a procedure occurring on the hospital unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When parents of a toddler request to be present during a procedure, it is crucial to conduct an individual assessment of the parents. This assessment helps healthcare professionals understand the parents' ability to cope with the procedure, provide support to their child, and ensure a safe and comfortable environment for all involved. Choice A, the type of procedure to be performed, while important, is not the most critical factor in this scenario. Choice C, whether the toddler wants the parents present, is significant but secondary to assessing the parents themselves. Choice D, probable reaction to the toddler's response to pain, is important but focuses more on the child's reaction rather than the parents' capacity to provide appropriate support.