HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is injured on the school playground and appears to have a fractured leg. What action should the school nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take when a child is injured and appears to have a fractured leg is to assess the child and the extent of the injury. This initial assessment is crucial to determine the severity of the injury before proceeding with further interventions. Option A, calling for emergency transport, should only be done after assessing the extent of the injury. Option B, immobilizing the limb and joints, is important but should come after the initial assessment. Option D, applying cold compresses, is not recommended for suspected fractures as it can exacerbate swelling and pain.
Question 2 of 9
A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse plan to implement when working with the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an infectious disease that requires airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of infectious droplets. Airborne precautions involve wearing a mask, such as an N95 respirator, to protect against inhaling infectious particles. Droplet precautions are for diseases spread through respiratory droplets larger than those in airborne transmission, such as influenza. Protective precautions are not specific to respiratory infections and are more general measures to protect patients from harm. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact, such as MRSA or C. diff infections, not for tuberculosis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient's neighbor is scheduled for elective surgery. The neighbor's provider indicated that a moderate amount of blood loss is expected during the surgery, and the neighbor is anxious about acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Donating autologous blood before surgery is an appropriate suggestion by the nurse. This process involves the patient donating their own blood before the surgery, which reduces the risk of infection from transfusions as the patient is receiving their own blood. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding the blood transfusion may not be feasible or safe in the context of expected blood loss during surgery. Choice C is not a common practice and may carry its own risks. Choice D is not directly related to reducing the risk of infection from a blood transfusion.
Question 5 of 9
During a physical assessment, a nurse is assessing 4 adult clients. Which of the following physical assessment techniques should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the bladder of the BP cuff surrounds 80% of the arm. This technique is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Choice B is incorrect because using the BP cuff on the forearm may lead to inaccurate readings. Choice C is incorrect as applying the BP cuff loosely can also result in inaccurate measurements. Choice D is incorrect because using a pediatric cuff for adults with small arms would not provide accurate blood pressure readings.
Question 6 of 9
An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac 0.5 mg/kg IV bolus every 6 hr to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. The available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dose, first convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. The child weighs 66 lb, which is approximately 30 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg, so for a 30 kg child, the dose would be 0.5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 15 mg. Since the available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 15 mg · 30 mg/mL = 0.5 mL per dose. Therefore, choice A (0.5 mL) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the child's weight and the concentration of the ketorolac injection.
Question 8 of 9
The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving dietary modification education from the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with GERD should avoid coffee as it can relax the lower esophageal sphincter and exacerbate symptoms. Limiting coffee consumption to the morning hours may not be sufficient, as coffee can still contribute to GERD symptoms throughout the day. Choices A, C, and D are all appropriate strategies for managing GERD symptoms. Avoiding large meals before bedtime, elevating the head of the bed while sleeping, and steering clear of spicy and acidic foods are all recommended practices to help alleviate GERD symptoms. Therefore, the client's statement in option B indicates a need for further teaching to completely address dietary modifications for managing GERD.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.