A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is not typically used to diagnose atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to identify fungal infections like ringworm, not for diagnosing atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is performed to identify microorganisms in a wound, not to diagnose atopic dermatitis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment because it may indicate inadequate oxygenation or circulation, potentially related to cardiac or respiratory issues. Flat occiput (choice A) is a common finding in infants and is not typically concerning. Small, low-set ears (choice B) are common in Down syndrome and not specifically indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate further assessment. Protruding furrowed tongue (choice D) is also commonly seen in infants with Down syndrome and typically does not warrant immediate further assessment unless associated with other concerning signs or symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C) Antibodies are passively received from the mother through the placenta and breast milk. Explanation: The correct answer is C because infants born without an immune system rely on passive immunity transferred from the mother. Maternal antibodies are transferred across the placenta during pregnancy and through breast milk after birth, providing temporary protection to the infant. A) Exposure to pathogens during this time can be limited. This option is incorrect because the absence of an immune system puts the infant at high risk for infections, regardless of limited exposure to pathogens. B) Some antibodies are produced by the infant's colonic bacteria. This option is incorrect as newborns do not have a fully developed immune system to produce antibodies independently. D) Fewer antibodies are produced by the fetal thymus during the eighth and ninth months of gestation. This option is incorrect because the fetal thymus primarily plays a role in T cell development, not antibody production. Educational Context: Understanding the concept of passive immunity in newborns is crucial for pediatric nursing. It highlights the importance of maternal antibodies in protecting infants during the early vulnerable period when their own immune system is not yet fully functional. Nurses must educate parents on the significance of breastfeeding and prenatal care in providing essential antibodies to their newborns.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chickenpox (varicella). Chickenpox is a viral disease characterized by a highly pruritic rash that typically starts on the abdomen and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the face and proximal extremities. It can lead to complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a mild rash and swollen lymph nodes; Rubeola (measles) also presents with a rash but starts on the face before spreading downwards; Scarlet fever is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and is characterized by a rash, fever, and sore throat.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's treatment. The other options are incorrect because growth hormone treatment, stopping treatment at puberty, and reporting signs of acute adrenal crisis are not directly related to managing a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.