HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
Question 2 of 9
A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the nurse integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epiphysis. Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. Choice A, 'Growth plate,' is incorrect as it does not specify the exact area where bone growth primarily occurs. Choice C, 'Physis,' refers to the same structure as a growth plate, but the term 'epiphysis' is more specific to bone growth. Choice D, 'Metaphysis,' is incorrect as it is the area of the bone where the epiphysis meets the diaphysis, not the primary site of bone growth.
Question 4 of 9
According to Friedman's structural functional theory, what defines the family component of meeting the love and belonging needs of each member?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Friedman's structural functional theory outlines different functions of a family. The affective function, as defined by Friedman, pertains to meeting the love and belonging needs of each member. This includes emotional support, nurturing, and creating a sense of security within the family unit. Choices B, C, and D do not specifically address the affective function described in Friedman's theory. Choice B focuses on socialization and preparing children for adult roles, choice C relates to the economic function of a family, and choice D pertains to the instrumental function of providing physical care for health.
Question 5 of 9
The parents of a newborn with phenylketonuria (PKU) need help and support in adhering to specific dietary restrictions. They ask the nurse, "How long will our child have to be on this diet?" How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "This is a lifelong problem, and it is recommended that dietary restrictions must be continued." Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder where the body cannot process phenylalanine properly. The diet for PKU must be continued lifelong to prevent cognitive and developmental issues, as phenylalanine buildup can cause irreversible damage. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should provide information about the lifelong nature of the dietary restrictions for PKU. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests reintroducing protein-containing foods, which is not recommended for individuals with PKU. Choice C is incorrect as it underestimates the duration of the necessary dietary restrictions for PKU.
Question 6 of 9
A child with a diagnosis of diabetes insipidus is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a child diagnosed with diabetes insipidus is to monitor fluid balance. Diabetes insipidus is a condition characterized by excessive urination and thirst, which can lead to dehydration. Monitoring fluid balance is essential to prevent dehydration and ensure the child's hydration status remains stable. Administering insulin (Choice A) is not indicated in diabetes insipidus because it is a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, not the pancreas. Administering diuretics (Choice C) would exacerbate fluid loss in a child already at risk for dehydration. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is important but not the priority when compared to maintaining fluid balance in a child with diabetes insipidus.
Question 7 of 9
A child with a diagnosis of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. What is an important nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering bronchodilators is a crucial nursing intervention for a child with asthma because it helps to open the airways and ease breathing during an asthma attack. Bronchodilators are medications that work by relaxing the muscles around the airways, making it easier for the child to breathe. Encouraging physical activity may exacerbate asthma symptoms in some cases due to increased respiratory effort and exposure to triggers. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important but does not address the immediate need of opening the airways during an asthma episode. Providing nutritional support is essential for overall health but is not the primary intervention needed in managing an acute asthma exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. Which of the following statements regarding crowning is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During crowning, it is important to apply gentle pressure to the baby's head. This helps to prevent rapid delivery, which can lead to tearing and other complications for both the mother and the baby. Applying pressure also helps to control the delivery process, ensuring a safer and more controlled birth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because crowning does not signify the end of the second stage of labor, does not always occur immediately after the amniotic sac ruptures, and it is not safe to transport the patient during crowning, especially if the hospital is nearby, as rapid delivery can occur.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following techniques represents the most appropriate method of opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique for opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury is to tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck. This method helps to keep the airway open without risking injury to the infant's delicate neck structures. Choice A, lifting up the chin and hyperextending the neck, can potentially harm the infant's neck. Choice C, gently lifting the chin while maintaining slight flexion of the neck, is not as effective as tilting the head back. Choice D is incorrect as infants require a different approach compared to older children or adults due to their anatomical differences.