HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
Question 2 of 5
A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.
Question 3 of 5
The parents of a 6-week-old infant who was born without an immune system ask a nurse why their baby is still so healthy. How should the nurse reply?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants receive passive immunity through antibodies from the mother during pregnancy and breastfeeding, which protect them initially. Choice A is incorrect because a 6-week-old infant born without an immune system would not be able to limit exposure to pathogens effectively. Choice B is incorrect as antibodies produced by colonic bacteria are not a significant source of immunity in infants. Choice D is incorrect as the fetal thymus primarily plays a role in T cell development rather than antibody production during gestation.
Question 4 of 5
When explaining a viral disease that begins with malaise and a highly pruritic rash starting on the abdomen, spreading to the face and proximal extremities, and potentially leading to severe complications, which childhood disease is a nurse discussing with members of a grammar school's Parent-Teachers Association?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Chickenpox (varicella). This viral disease typically starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen and then spreads to the face and proximal extremities. Chickenpox can result in serious complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a milder rash and is less pruritic than chickenpox. Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a rash that spreads from the head to the trunk. Scarlet fever is caused by group A Streptococcus bacteria and is not a viral illness.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is a medication commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents on how to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's care. Choice A is incorrect because growth hormone treatment is not typically used for posterior pituitary disorders. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for this condition usually continues beyond puberty. Choice D is incorrect as acute adrenal crisis is not directly related to a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.