A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction by the practical nurse (PN) is correct?

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Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction by the practical nurse (PN) is correct?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is not to take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow. Digoxin can affect the heart rhythm, so it is crucial to monitor the pulse rate. In case of irregular or slow heartbeats, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be consulted. This step is necessary to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy.

Question 2 of 5

A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality.

Question 3 of 5

A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is taking nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is essential to manage their glucose levels effectively. In this scenario, the best approach is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications.

Question 4 of 5

An adolescent client with a seizure disorder is prescribed the anticonvulsant medication carbamazepine. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider if the client develops which condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Develops a sore throat.' When a client on carbamazepine develops flu-like symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, sore throat, and fever, it could indicate blood dyscrasias (aplastic anemia, leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia), which are potential adverse effects of the medication. These symptoms warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications.

Question 5 of 5

A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

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