HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.
Question 2 of 9
A client recovering from abdominal surgery is on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most appropriate food choice for this diet?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Grape juice is the most appropriate choice for a clear liquid diet as it is a transparent fluid that is easily digested. Clear liquid diets aim to provide fluids and electrolytes while being easy on the digestive system. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a clear liquid diet as they are not in liquid form or do not meet the criteria of being easily digestible for someone recovering from abdominal surgery. Chicken noodle soup, cream of wheat, and vanilla pudding are not considered clear liquids and may not be well-tolerated by a client who has undergone abdominal surgery.
Question 3 of 9
Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.
Question 4 of 9
A man calls the hospital and asks to talk with the nurse about his girlfriend who was extremely intoxicated on admission and is receiving services for detoxification. He knows that she is in the facility and asks the nurse about her condition. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must adhere to confidentiality rules and cannot confirm the presence or condition of the client. Choice A is incorrect because disclosing the client's condition breaches confidentiality. Choice B is wrong as it reveals the client's room number, which is also a breach of confidentiality. Choice D is not the best response as it involves sharing information about the client without verifying the caller's identity or relationship to the client.
Question 5 of 9
A client collapses while showering and is found by the nurse while making rounds. The client is not breathing and does not have a palpable pulse. The nurse obtains the Automated External Defibrillator (AED). What action should the nurse implement next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Applying the AED pads is the immediate next step after obtaining the AED in a cardiac arrest situation. Placing the pads correctly on the client's chest is crucial for the AED to analyze the heart rhythm accurately and deliver a shock if needed. Following the prompts of the AED comes after the pads are in place. Wiping the client's chest dry or moving the client from the bathroom are not priorities at this critical moment and may delay life-saving interventions.
Question 6 of 9
When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse identifies the presence of clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a client who just returned to the unit following lumbar spinal surgery. What action should the nurse implement immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement immediately upon identifying clear fluid on the surgical dressing post-lumbar surgery is to test the fluid for glucose. Clear fluid could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and testing for glucose can help confirm this. Changing the dressing using a compression bandage (Choice A) without further assessment could lead to complications. Documenting the findings (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as confirming the presence of CSF. Marking the drainage area with a pen and monitoring (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate confirmation of CSF leakage.
Question 9 of 9
A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.