Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Mental Health Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

Question 2 of 5

A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

Question 3 of 5

A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.

Question 4 of 5

A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

Question 5 of 5

The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (select one that does not apply)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Taking a self-defense course that retaliates against the abuser with injury can escalate the level of violence and is not recommended in a safety plan for a victim of intimate partner violence. The correct strategies include establishing a code, having a bag ready, and planning an escape route, which enhance safety without increasing the risk of harm.

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