A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) is a critical finding that is associated with a poor prognosis and requires immediate attention. Serum amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation, but they are not indicators of severity. Blood glucose levels may be elevated due to stress or underlying conditions but are not directly related to the severity of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, the most concerning value in this scenario is the low serum calcium level, which can have significant implications for the client's prognosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Performing a physical assessment is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this scenario. A thorough physical assessment helps evaluate the client's current condition, severity of symptoms, and identify any immediate concerns. This assessment can provide crucial information to guide further interventions and treatment. Reviewing the client's medication list (choice B) is important but may not address the immediate need for assessing the client's current status. Instructing the client to elevate the legs (choice C) may be beneficial but should come after a thorough assessment. Obtaining a detailed dietary history (choice D) is relevant for heart failure management but is not the most urgent initial action when the client presents with acute symptoms like weight gain, leg swelling, and shortness of breath.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.