A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?

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Question 1 of 9

A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.

Question 2 of 9

An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

Question 3 of 9

Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following patients should the home care nurse assess first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A patient with known COPD and difficulty breathing after physical exertion like climbing stairs requires immediate assessment by the nurse. This could indicate a potential exacerbation of COPD, which needs prompt intervention to prevent respiratory distress. Choices B, C, and D describe important patient situations that also require attention, but the urgency is higher with a COPD patient experiencing difficulty breathing.

Question 5 of 9

When asked to help develop interventions to combat obesity among children, the community health nurse should stress the importance of implementing which activity?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Setting goals that are focused on developing healthier lifestyles. This approach is essential in combating childhood obesity as it promotes sustainable habits and behaviors. Option B, developing strict diet plans, may not be effective in the long term and could lead to unhealthy relationships with food. Option C, providing diet classes during school hours, may not address the root causes of obesity and could potentially stigmatize the children. Option D, requiring all children to participate in organized team sports, may not be feasible for all children and might not address dietary habits and sedentary behaviors.

Question 6 of 9

During a home visit for a family with a new baby, what should the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Assessing feeding patterns is the priority during a home visit for a family with a new baby because it is crucial for the health and growth of the newborn. By evaluating the feeding patterns, the nurse can ensure that the baby is receiving adequate nutrition and address any feeding issues promptly. While sleeping arrangements, support system, and immunization status are important aspects to assess during a home visit, they are not as critical as ensuring the newborn's nutritional needs are being met.

Question 7 of 9

In combating myths and misconceptions about family planning in the community, what should you do first as a health educator?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community and their sources. This is the initial step in addressing misconceptions effectively. By understanding the specific myths and where they originate from, a health educator can tailor their approach to correct these misconceptions. Choice A is incorrect because while influential leaders can play a role, identifying myths comes first. Choice B is incorrect as selecting an approach should come after understanding the myths. Choice C is incorrect as deciding who will be involved in a conference is not the primary step in combating myths and misconceptions.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Target Client list. The Target Client list is specifically designed to monitor groups that are eligible for a particular DOH program. It helps in identifying and tracking individuals or populations that qualify for the said program. Choice A, Family treatment record, is incorrect because it pertains to the medical history and treatment information of a particular family, not eligibility monitoring. Choice C, Reporting forms, is incorrect as they are used for documenting and submitting information, not for monitoring eligibility. Choice D, Output record, is also incorrect as it refers to the results or outcomes produced by a system, not for monitoring eligibility.

Question 9 of 9

Which presentation of an infectious disease is acquired through an indirect transmission?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Malaria is transmitted indirectly through mosquito bites. Choice A is incorrect as syphilis is acquired through direct contact with an infected sexual partner. Choice B is incorrect as measles can be transmitted through respiratory droplets in close contact settings like daycare centers. Choice D is incorrect as nosocomial influenza spreads within healthcare facilities through direct contact or droplets.

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