NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 58-year-old client on a general surgery unit is scheduled for transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) in 2 hours. The nurse explains to the client that this procedure means:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This describes a suprapubic (transvesical) prostatectomy procedure. This is the correct description of a TURP procedure. This describes a perineal prostatectomy procedure. This describes a retropubic (extravesical) prostatectomy procedure.
Question 2 of 5
A four-year-old is admitted with acute leukemia. It will be most important to monitor the child for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute leukemia causes bone marrow suppression, leading to bleeding (from low platelets) and pallor (from anemia). These are critical signs to monitor. Other symptoms are less immediate.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is teaching a client with a history of type 1 diabetes about sick day management. The nurse should tell the client to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Frequent blood glucose monitoring during illness prevents hypo- or hyperglycemia in type 1 diabetes.
Question 4 of 5
Two hours after the second injection of haloperidol, a client complains to the nurse of a stiff neck and inability to sit still. He is experiencing symptoms consistent with:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stiff neck is consistent with a dystonic reaction, but the client has no symptoms of drooling, shuffling gait, or pill-rolling movements characteristic of parkinsonism. Stiff neck is consistent with a dystonic reaction, and inability to sit still with varying degrees of psychomotor agitation is characteristic of akathisia. The client has symptoms of dystonia but not of parkinsonism. The client has none of the characteristic symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome: hyperpyrexia, generalized muscle rigidity, mutism, obtundation, agitation, sweating, increased blood pressure and pulse.
Question 5 of 5
A client admitted to the emergency room with multiple injuries develops Cullen's sign. The nurse is aware that the client has sustained damage to the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cullen’s sign (periumbilical bruising) indicates intra-abdominal bleeding, often from trauma to abdominal organs like the liver or spleen. It is not associated with brain, lung, or spinal injuries.