ATI LPN
Test Bank for Medical Surgical Nursing: Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care 10th Edition
Chapter 74 : Care of Patients with Sexually Transmitted Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a scale in rash over the palms and soles of the feet and the feel, a client is assessing a client who presents with a scale in syphilis. Which statement of the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest secondary syphilis, characterized by a rash on the palms and soles due to spirochetes in the bloodstream. Further assessment of lesions is critical to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment. Reassuring about non-infectiousness is incorrect, as secondary syphilis is highly infectious, and cardiovascular symptoms are more relevant in tertiary syphilis.
Question 2 of 5
An African-American female with blisters on the vagina is being treated with acyclovir (Zovira) for genital herpes. She is angry at her partner for transmitting the infection. Which action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should be sensitive to the client's emotional distress, as genital herpes can cause feelings of anger and isolation. Referring her to a support group, like the National Herpes Resource Center, helps address these feelings. Encouraging sexual activity or claiming the disease is non-transmissible is incorrect, as herpes remains contagious during outbreaks, and acyclovir does not eliminate pain or transmission risk.
Question 3 of 5
A 19-year-old female is asking the nurse about the vaccine for human papilloma virus (HPV). Which is a support group.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gardasil protects against HPV types 6, 11, 16, and 18, which are high-risk for cervical cancer and genital warts, but not all strains. The vaccine is recommended for ages 9 to 45, so the client is not too young. It is most effective before exposure, and condoms reduce but do not eliminate HPV transmission risk.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which explanation by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chlamydia and gonorrhea often co-occur, so empirical treatment for both is standard when culture results are pending to prevent complications. Antibiotics treat but do not guarantee a permanent cure, especially if re-infection occurs. Waiting for symptom persistence delays care, and condoms, while not foolproof, reduce transmission risk.
Question 5 of 5
A 26-year-old client with multiple sexual partners is being assessed for symptoms of dysuria and vaginal discharge. Because the results from the culture of the cervical cells are not available, the client will be treated for both Chlamydia and gonorrhea. Which question by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Identifying and treating sexual partners is critical to prevent the spread of Chlamydia and gonorrhea. While history, timing of last encounter, and symptom onset are useful, contacting and treating partners is the priority to break the chain of transmission.