ATI LPN
Test Bank for Medical Surgical Nursing: Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care 10th Edition
Chapter 69 : Assessment of the Reproductive System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 67-year-old male client had some serum tests performed during his annual examination. The nurse reviews his results, as follows: testosterone: 600 g/L, prostate-specific antigen: 10 mg/L, prolactin: 5 mg/L. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The prostate-specific antigen is increased from the normal range of 0 to 2.5 mg/L, which could indicate benign prostatic hyperplasia or prostate cancer. Further testing is required. The values of testosterone and prolactin are within normal range. If prolactin were increased, there would be a possibility of galactorrhea. An increase in testosterone could indicate a possible testicular tumor.
Question 2 of 5
A 72-year-old woman is being assessed by the nurse for an annual physical. Which finding is of concern to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding in a 72-year-old postmenopausal woman is concerning and requires further investigation, as it may indicate serious conditions such as endometrial cancer. Mild vaginal dryness and occasional urinary incontinence are common in this age group, and a history of regular Pap smears is a positive finding.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing discharge plans with a client who is recovering from a cervical biopsy. Which statements indicate good understanding by the client? (Select all that apply).
Correct Answer: C,D
Rationale: The client should not douche, have intercourse, or use tampons until the biopsy site is healed, which typically takes about 2 weeks. Returning to work the same afternoon and lifting heavy objects like a toddler are not recommended, as the client should rest for 24 hours and avoid heavy lifting to promote healing. Using a tampon could introduce infection or disrupt healing.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who is scheduled for her first Papaniccolous test. What instructions by the nurse is the most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In order to prevent false interpretation, the client must not douche or have sexual intercourse for at least 24 hours before the Pap smear. Timing is important, with the test scheduled between the client's menstrual periods so that the menstrual flow does not interfere with laboratory analysis. The specimens are placed on a glass slide and sent to the laboratory for examination and cannot be interpreted immediately.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing the reproductive history of a 68-year-old postmenopausal woman. Which finding is cause for immediate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding is not normal for the postmenopausal woman and requires immediate action to investigate potential serious conditions such as endometrial cancer. Vaginal dryness and leakage of urine are common findings in adults of this age range. Pap tests may not be needed for women over 65 who have had regular cervical cancer screening with normal results.