ATI LPN
Test Bank for Medical Surgical Nursing: Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care 10th Edition
Chapter 64 : Care of Patients with Diabetes Mellitus Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse teaches a client about self-monitoring of blood glucose levels. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching to prevent bloodborne infections?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sharing monitoring equipment can transmit bloodborne infections like hepatitis B, which can survive in dried blood. Not sharing equipment is critical. Washing hands before testing, not after, is recommended. Wiping blood with a cotton ball or using gloves is not standard practice for preventing infections.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed pioglitazone (Actos). After 6 months of therapy, the client reports that his urine has become darker since starting the medication. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone can affect liver function. Dark urine may indicate liver impairment due to increased bilirubin. Reviewing liver function studies is the priority. Assessing for urinary symptoms, increasing water intake, or testing for occult blood are not directly related to this issue.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who asks, 'Why do I need to administer more than one injection of insulin each day?' How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Multiple insulin injections are needed to match insulin levels with food intake and activity patterns, preventing wide blood glucose fluctuations. Proficiency in injection, carbohydrate restriction, or absorption issues are not the primary reasons for multiple doses.
Question 4 of 5
After teaching a client with diabetes mellitus to inject insulin, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The abdominal site has the fastest insulin absorption due to its blood supply, not proximity to the pancreas. The other statements are accurate regarding site rotation and absorption rates.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse assesses a client with diabetes mellitus and notes the client only responds to a sternal rub by moaning, has a capillary blood glucose of 33 mg/dL, and has an intravenous line that is infiltrated with 0.45% normal saline. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The client's severe hypoglycemia (blood glucose 33 mg/dL) and unresponsiveness require immediate treatment. Intramuscular glucagon is the priority since the IV line is infiltrated, and oral intake is not feasible. Inserting a new IV or administering D50 IV can follow once access is restored.