ATI LPN
Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017)
Chapter 71 : Management of Patients With Infectious Diseases Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the best rationale for health care providers receiving the influenza vaccination on a yearly basis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Annual influenza vaccination reduces transmission to vulnerable patients. It does not prevent healthcare-associated infections, eradicate influenza, or stop drug-resistant strains.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has presented at the ED with copious diarrhea and accompanying signs of dehydration. During the patients health history, the nurse learns that the patient recently ate oysters from the Gulf of Mexico. The nurse should recognize the need to have the patients stool cultured for microorganisms associated with what disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cholera is associated with shellfish consumption from the Gulf of Mexico, causing watery diarrhea. Ebola, West Nile, and Legionnaires have different transmission modes.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is alarmed that she has tested positive for MRSA following culture testing during her admission to the hospital. What should the nurse teach the patient about this diagnostic finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive MRSA culture indicates colonization, not necessarily infection. It is not preliminary, nor is it true that most patients test positive or that treatments eliminate concern.
Question 4 of 5
A patients diagnostic testing revealed that he is colonized with vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE). What change in the patients health status could precipitate an infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A skin break provides a portal for VRE to cause infection from colonization. Antibiotics or prolonged skin contact are less likely to trigger infection.
Question 5 of 5
A clinic nurse is caring for a male patient diagnosed with gonorrhea who has been prescribed ceftriaxone and doxycycline. The patient asks why he is receiving two antibiotics. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dual therapy with ceftriaxone and doxycycline targets common co-infection with chlamydia in gonorrhea patients. It does not primarily address resistance, reinfection, or speed of cure.