ATI LPN
Test Bank for Medical Surgical Nursing: Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care 10th Edition
Chapter 50 : Care of Patients with Musculoskeletal Problems Questions
Question 1 of 5
An older client with diabetes is admitted with a heavily draining leg wound. The client's white blood cell count is 38,000/mm³ but the client is afebrile. What action does the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A heavily draining wound suggests potential infection, and the elevated white blood cell count supports this. Placing the client on contact isolation is the priority to prevent the spread of infection. Acetaminophen is unnecessary without fever, wound cultures follow isolation, and referral to a wound care nurse is secondary.
Question 2 of 5
A client with bone cancer is hospitalized for a limb salvage procedure. How can the nurse best address the client's psychosocial needs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing coping skills and support systems is the first step in addressing psychosocial needs, as it identifies the client's resources and challenges. Explaining life expectancy does not address psychosocial needs directly, referrals may follow assessment, and physical therapy focuses on physical rather than psychosocial needs.
Question 3 of 5
A client had a bunionectomy with osteotomy. The client asks why healing may take up to 3 months. What explanation by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The feet, being distal to the heart, have reduced blood flow compared to other areas, which slows healing after surgery like a bunionectomy with osteotomy. The other options are less accurate or incomplete explanations.
Question 4 of 5
A client has scoliosis with a 65-degree curve to the spine. What action by the nurse takes priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 65-degree spinal curve in scoliosis can impair cardiac and respiratory function due to chest deformity. Assessing these systems is the priority to ensure the client's safety. Comfort, ambulation, and positioning are important but secondary.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse sees clients in an osteoporosis clinic. Which client should the nurse see first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Leg swelling in a client taking raloxifene suggests possible deep vein thrombosis, a serious adverse effect requiring immediate attention. Flank pain from 6 weeks ago is less urgent, forgetting a dose of ibandronate is not immediately critical, and dyspepsia with risedronate is a common side effect that can be managed later.