ATI LPN
Test Bank for Medical Surgical Nursing: Concepts for Interprofessional Collaborative Care 10th Edition
Chapter 45 : Care of Critically Ill Patients with Neurologic Problems Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is the intensive care unit is scheduled for a lumbar puncture (LP) today. On assessment, the nurse finds the client breathing irregularly with one pupil fixed and dilated. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: This client is exhibiting signs of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the provider immediately because performing the LP now could lead is hesitation. Informed consent is needed for an LP. but this is not the priority. Documentation should be thorough, but again this is not the priority. The preprocedure/relation (or other preprocedure/mediations) should not be given as the LP will most likely be canceled.
Question 2 of 5
After a craniotomy, the nurse assesses the client and finds dry, sticky mucous membranes and restlessness. The client has IV fluids running at 75 m/mr. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client has manifestations of hypermatremia, which is a possible complication after craniotomy. The nurse should assess the clients serum sodium level. Magnesium level is not related. The nurse does not independently increase the rate of the IV infusion. Providing oral care is also a good option but does not take priority over assessment/inursing records.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a brain abscess and is receiving phenyton [Dilantin]. The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Brain abscesses can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse should explain this to the spouse. Phenystion is need to a prevent febrile seizures. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain abscesses. This drug is not used for sedation.
Question 4 of 5
A client has a shoulder injury and is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse notes the presence of an aneurysm slip on the clients record. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Some older clips are metal, which would preclude the use of MRI. The nurse should determine how old the clip is not the client. Informing the provider is important but determining the age of the clip is the first step. Rescheduling for a CT may not be necessary if the clip is MRI-compatible. Assessing for metal allergies is not relevant to MRI safety.
Question 5 of 5
After a stroke, a client has ataxia. What intervention is most appropriate to include on the clients plan of care.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ataxia is a gait disturbance. For the clients safety, or she she should have assistance and use a gait belt when ambulating. Ataxia is not related to swallowing, aspiration, or voiding.