ATI LPN
Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017)
Chapter 56 : Assessment and Management of Patients With Female Physiologic Processes Questions
Question 1 of 5
A premenopausal patient is complaining of vaginal spotting and sharp, colicky lower abdominal pain. She informs the nurse that her period is 2 weeks late. The nurse should recognize a need for this patient to be investigated for what health problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy include delay in menstruation of 1 to 2 weeks, vaginal spotting, and sharp, colicky pain. These symptoms align with the patient's presentation, warranting investigation for this condition. Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginal infection, typically with discharge, not typically associated with delayed menstruation or colicky pain. Cervical cancer may cause abnormal bleeding but is less likely to present with acute colicky pain and delayed menstruation. Fibromyalgia is unrelated to menstrual irregularities or vaginal spotting.
Question 2 of 5
A female patient with cognitive and physical disabilities has come into the clinic for a routine checkup. When planning this patients assessment, what action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When working with women who have disabilities, it is important that the nurse avoid equating the woman with her disability; the nurse must make an effort to understand that the patient and the disability are not synonymous. This ensures respectful and individualized care. A chaperone may not be required unless requested or indicated by policy. Limiting the assessment or avoiding education may compromise care quality and is not appropriate.
Question 3 of 5
A patient calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has thick white, curd-like discharge from her vagina. How should the nurse best interpret this preliminary data?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drainage caused by Candida is typically curd-like and white, matching the patient's description. Trichomonas infections usually cause copious, frothy yellowish-green discharge. A Pap smear is not indicated as the primary response, as malignancy is unlikely. The discharge is not physiologic or normal.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse presenting an educational event for a local community group is addressing premenstrual syndrome (PMS). What treatment guideline should the nurse teach this group?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In general, the patient is encouraged to increase or initiate an exercise program to help relieve symptoms of PMS. Increased fluid intake is recommended, not avoidance. Opioids are not used to treat PMS, and while stress reduction has general benefits, it is not specifically noted to alleviate PMS symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is collecting assessment data from a premenopausal patient who states that she does not have menses. What term should the nurse use to document the absence of menstrual flow?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amenorrhea refers to the absence of menstrual flow, which aligns with the patient's report. Dysmenorrhea indicates painful menstruation, menorrhagia refers to prolonged or excessive bleeding during menstruation, and metrorrhagia denotes bleeding between periods. Amenorrhea is the correct term for documentation.