ATI LPN
Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017)
Chapter 42 : Management of Patients With Musculoskeletal Trauma Questions
Question 1 of 5
An elite high school football player has been diagnosed with a shoulder dislocation. The patient has been treated and is eager to resume his role on his team, stating that he is not experiencing pain. What should the nurse emphasize during health education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients who have experienced sports-related injuries are often highly motivated to return to their previous level of activity. Adherence to restriction of activities and gradual resumption of activities needs to be reinforced. Appropriate analgesia use must be encouraged, but analgesia does not necessarily have to be taken in the absence of pain. If healing is complete, the patient does not likely have a greatly increased risk of reinjury. Dislocations rarely cause bleeding after the healing process.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has presented to the emergency department with an injury to the wrist. The patient is diagnosed with a third-degree strain. Why would the physician order an x-ray of the wrist?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An x-ray should be obtained to rule out bone injury, because an avulsion fracture (in which a bone fragment is pulled away from the bone by a tendon) may be associated with a third-degree strain. Nerve damage, compartment syndrome, and greenstick fractures are not associated with third-degree strains.
Question 3 of 5
A 20 year-old is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. The patient has an open fracture of his tibia. The wound is highly contaminated and there is extensive soft-tissue damage. How would this patients fracture likely be graded?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Open fractures are graded according to the following criteria. Grade I is a clean wound less than 1 cm long. Grade II is a larger wound without extensive soft-tissue damage. Grade III is highly contaminated, has extensive soft-tissue damage, and is the most severe. There is no grade IV fracture.
Question 4 of 5
A 25-year-old man is involved in a motorcycle accident and injures his arm. The physician diagnoses the man with an intra-articular fracture and splints the injury. The nurse implements the teaching plan developed for this patient. What sequela of intra-articular fractures should the nurse describe regarding this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intra-articular fractures often lead to post-traumatic arthritis. Research does not indicate a correlation between intra-articular fractures and FES, osteomyelitis, or compartment syndrome.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is planning the care of a patient with osteomyelitis that resulted from a diabetic foot ulcer. The patient requires a transmetatarsal amputation. When planning the patients postoperative care, which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse most likely include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Amputations present a serious threat to any patients body image. None of the other listed diagnoses is specifically associated with amputation.