ATI LPN
Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017)
Chapter 13 : Fluid and Electrolytes: Balance and Disturbance Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV catheter into a patient who will require fluids and IV antibiotics. How should the nurse always start the process of insertion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Before preparing the skin, the nurse should ask the patient if he or she is allergic to latex or iodine, which are products commonly used in preparing for IV therapy. A local reaction could result in irritation to the IV site, or, in the extreme, it could result in anaphylaxis, which can be life threatening. Both hands should always be gloved when preparing for IV insertion, and latex-free gloves must be used or the patient must report not having latex allergies. The skin is not usually cleansed with normal saline prior to insertion. Removing excessive hair at the selected site is always secondary to allergy inquiry.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3=24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is below 7.40, PaCO2 is greater than 40, and the HCO3 is normal; therefore, it is a respiratory acidosis, and compensation by the kidneys has not begun, which indicates this was probably an acute event. The HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range so it is not metabolic alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates an acidosis, not alkalosis. The pH of 7.21 indicates it is an acidosis but the HCO3 of 24 is within the normal range, ruling out metabolic acidosis.
Question 3 of 5
One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acute-care nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: If a patient is not excreting enough urine, the health care provider needs to determine whether the depressed renal function is the result of reduced renal blood flow, which is a fluid volume deficit (FVD or prerenal azotemia), or acute tubular necrosis that results in necrosis or cellular death from prolonged FVD. A typical example of a fluid challenge involves administering 100 to 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. The response by a patient with FVD but with normal renal function is increased urine output and an increase in blood pressure. Laboratory examinations are needed to distinguish hyponatremia from hypernatremia. A fluid challenge is not used to evaluate pituitary gland function. A fluid challenge may provide information regarding hypertension-induced oliguria, but it is not an effective treatment.
Question 4 of 5
The community health nurse is performing a home visit to an 84-year-old woman recovering from hip surgery. The nurse notes that the woman seems uncharacteristically confused and has dry mucous membranes. When asked about her fluid intake, the patient states, I stop drinking water early in the day because it is just too difficult to get up during the night to go to the bathroom. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In elderly patients, the clinical manifestations of fluid and electrolyte disturbances may be subtle or atypical. For example, fluid deficit may cause confusion or cognitive impairment in the elderly person. There is no mention of medications in the stem of the question or any specific evidence given for the need for readmission to the hospital. Confusion is never normal, common, or expected in the elderly. Urinary retention does normally cause confusion.
Question 5 of 5
A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Renin is released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys in response to decreased renal perfusion. Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, with its vasoconstrictor properties, increases arterial perfusion pressure and stimulates thirst. As the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, aldosterone is released in response to an increased release of renin, which decreases urine production. Based on the nursing assessment and mechanism of injury, this is the most likely causing the lower urine output. The man urinating prior to his arrival to the ED is unlikely; the fall and hip injury would make his ability to urinate difficult. No assessment information indicates he has a head injury or heart failure.