NCLEX-RN
Med Surg RN NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client post-inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Resuming sexual activity within a week post-inguinal herniorrhaphy may strain the surgical site, indicating a need for further teaching to delay such activities for 4–6 weeks. The other statements align with appropriate postoperative care. CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Evaluate
Question 2 of 5
A client who is recovering from gastric surgery is receiving I.V. fluids to be infused at 100 mL/hour. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 gtt/mL. The nurse should infuse the solution at a flow rate of how many drops per minute to ensure that the client receives 100 mL/hour?
Correct Answer: 25 gtt/minute
Rationale:
To calculate: (100 mL/hour × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 25 gtt/minute. The nurse should set the flow rate to 25 drops per minute.
Question 3 of 5
A client with cancer develops superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS). Which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: SVCS obstructs venous return, causing facial swelling and dyspnea due to compression of the superior vena cava, which the nurse should prioritize in assessment.
Question 4 of 5
A 20-year-old who hit his head while playing football has a tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening from the seizure, the client asks the nurse, "What caused me to have a seizure? I've never had one before." Which cause should the nurse include in the response as a primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults older than age 20?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Head trauma is a primary cause of seizures in adults over 20, especially in the context of a recent injury. Electrolyte imbalances, congenital defects, or epilepsy are less likely without additional history.
Question 5 of 5
After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP), the nurse should not include incorporating which of the following measures into the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering a laxative is unnecessary post-IVP, as it does not aid recovery or contrast excretion, unlike fluid intake or hematuria assessment.