NCLEX-RN
Maternity NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a primiparous client and her neonate immediately after delivery. The neonate was born at 41 weeks' gestation and weighs 4,082 g (9 lb). Assessing for signs and symptoms of which of the following conditions should be a priority in the neonate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Large-for-gestational-age neonates (e.g., 4,082 g) are at risk for hypoglycemia due to increased metabolic demand and potential maternal diabetes. Hypoglycemia screening is a priority. Anemia, delayed meconium, or hyperbilirubinemia are less immediate.
Question 2 of 5
While caring for a term neonate who has been receiving phototherapy for 8 hours, the nurse should notify the health care provider if which of the following is noted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bronze-colored skin is a potential complication of phototherapy and should be reported to the health care provider.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse on the night shift finds a multiparous client, 8 hours postpartum, drenched in perspiration. The client's temperature is 99°F (36.8°C), the pulse is 68 bpm, and the blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Profuse sweating and normal vital signs suggest ineffective thermoregulation due to hormonal shifts, a common postpartum occurrence.
Question 4 of 5
A multigravid client at term is admitted to the hospital for a trial labor and possible vaginal birth. She has a history of previous cesarean delivery because of fetal distress. When the client is 4 cm dilated, she receives nalbuphine (Nubain) intravenously. While monitoring the fetal heart rate, the nurse observes minimal variability and a rate of 120 bpm. The nurse should explain the decreased variability is most likely caused by which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nalbuphine, an opioid, can reduce fetal heart rate variability by depressing the central nervous system, a common side effect. Maternal fatigue, malposition, or small-for-gestational-age fetus are less likely causes.
Question 5 of 5
A 19-year-old primigravid client at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor that began 8 hours ago. When the client's cervix is 7 cm dilated and the presenting part is at +1 station, the client tells the nurse, 'I need to push!' Which of the following would the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At 7 cm dilation, the client is not fully dilated, and pushing can cause cervical trauma. A pant-blow breathing pattern helps manage the urge to push until full dilation. The McDonald procedure is for cervical cerclage, and increasing oxygen/fluids or encouraging pushing is inappropriate.