Questions 81

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

Maternity NCLEX RN Questions Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

After a lengthy labor process, a primigravid client delivers a healthy newborn boy with a moderate amount of skull molding. Which of the following would the nurse include when explaining to the parents about this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Skull molding, a common result of vaginal delivery due to cranial bones overlapping, typically resolves within a few days as the head reshapes. It is not specific to breech or brow presentations, and surgical intervention is rarely needed.

Question 2 of 5

When performing an initial assessment of a post-term male neonate weighing 4,000 g (9 lb) who was admitted to the observation nursery after a vaginal delivery with low forceps, the nurse detects Ortolani's sign. Which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Ortolani's sign indicates possible developmental dysplasia of the hip, and immediate notification of the pediatrician is necessary.

Question 3 of 5

A client is considering the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) for contraception. Which of the following conditions must be met for LAM to be effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: LAM is effective when the client is exclusively breastfeeding, amenorrheic, and less than 6 months postpartum, as these conditions suppress ovulation. The other options include factors that reduce its effectiveness, such as formula supplementation or regular periods.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is discussing sterilization with a female client. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tubal ligation does not cause early menopause, as it only blocks the fallopian tubes and does not affect ovarian hormone production. The other statements are correct, indicating a need for further teaching.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse explains the complications of pregnancy that occur with diabetes to a primigravid client at 10 weeks' gestation who has a 5-year history of insulin-dependent diabetes. Which of the following, if stated by the client as a complication, indicates the need for additional teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Twin-to-twin transfer is not a complication of diabetes.

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