NCLEX-RN
Med Surg RN NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client post-hemodialysis reports dizziness. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dizziness may indicate hypotension, a common post-dialysis issue.
Question 2 of 5
After treatment with radioactive iodine (RAI) in the form of sodium iodide 131I, the nurse teaches the client to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RAI often destroys enough thyroid tissue to cause hypothyroidism, requiring lifelong thyroxine replacement. Monitoring for hyperthyroidism is unnecessary post-treatment, and rest or assessing for hypertension/tachycardia are not primary concerns.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse learns that a client who is scheduled for a tonsillectomy has been taking 40 mg of oral prednisone daily for the last week for poison ivy on his leg. What is the nurse's best action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prednisone use affects adrenal function and stress response, increasing risks during anesthesia. Notifying the anesthesiologist ensures proper perioperative management, such as stress-dose steroids.
Question 4 of 5
After an intravenous pyelogram (IVP), the nurse should not include incorporating which of the following measures into the client's plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering a laxative is unnecessary post-IVP, as it does not aid recovery or contrast excretion, unlike fluid intake or hematuria assessment.
Question 5 of 5
A client with cirrhosis is receiving Lactulose (Cephulac). During the assessment the nurse notes increased confusion and asterixis. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Confusion and asterixis indicate hepatic encephalopathy, often precipitated by GI bleeding (
A), which increases ammonia levels. Holding lactulose (
B) is incorrect as it reduces ammonia. Increasing protein (
C) worsens encephalopathy. Bilirubin (
D) is unrelated to acute symptoms.