NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin by continuous IV infusion to a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Regular insulin for IV infusion should be diluted in normal saline to ensure compatibility and prevent adsorption to IV tubing. Dextrose is inappropriate during DKA, and flushing with insulin wastes medication.
Question 2 of 5
The pediatrician has diagnosed tinea capitis in an 8-year-old girl and has placed her on oral griseofulvin. The nurse should emphasize which of these instructions to the mother and/or child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Giving the drug with or after meals may allay gastrointestinal discomfort. Giving the drug with a fatty meal (ice cream or milk) increases absorption rate. Griseofulvin may alter taste sensations and thereby decrease the appetite. Monitoring of food intake is important, and inadequate nutrient intake should be reported to the physician. The child may experience symptomatic relief after 48-96 hours of therapy. It is important to stress continuing the drug therapy to prevent relapse (usually about 6 weeks). The incidence of side effects is low; however, headaches are common. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and anorexia may occur. Dizziness, although uncommon, should be reported to the physician.
Question 3 of 5
The physician has ordered an injection of RhoGam for a client with blood type A negative. The nurse knows that RhoGam is given at:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RhoGam is administered intramuscularly, typically in the deltoid muscle, for Rh-negative mothers to prevent sensitization. The other locations are incorrect for IM injections of RhoGam.
Question 4 of 5
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ARDS causes severe hypoxemia, often requiring mechanical ventilation to maintain oxygenation. Nebulizers, physiotherapy, and antibiotics are secondary or condition-specific.
Question 5 of 5
A female client plans to bottle-feed her newborn. Her physician has ordered bromocriptine (Parlodel) to suppress lactation. Which of the following instructions about bromocriptine should be given by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bromocriptine inhibits the secretion of prolactin. Hypotension is a side effect of this drug; hypertension is not. Bromocriptine is generally taken for 14 days. The administration of bromocriptine is delayed at least 4 hours postpartum and given only when the client's blood pressure is stable, because it can cause hypotension and syncope.