NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 27-year-old healthy primigravida is brought to the labor and birthing room by her husband at 32 weeks' gestation. She experienced a sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding. Following an ultrasound examination, the diagnosis of bleeding secondary to complete placenta previa is made. Expected assessment findings concerning the abdomen would include:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A rigid, boardlike abdomen is an assessment finding indicative of placenta abruptio. A cause of postbirth hemorrhage is uterine atony. With placenta previa, uterine tone is within normal range. The placenta is located directly over the cervical os in complete previa. Blood will escape through the os, resulting in the uterus and abdomen remaining soft and relaxed. In placenta abruptio, hypertonicity of the uterus is caused by the entrapment of blood between the placenta and uterine wall, a retroplacental bleed. This does not exist in placenta previa.
Question 2 of 5
A 44-year-old client had an emergency cholecystectomy 3 days ago for a ruptured gallbladder. She complains of severe abdominal pain. Assessment reveals abdominal rigidity and distention, increased temperature, and tachycardia. Diagnostic testing reveals an elevated WBC count. The nurse suspects that the client has developed:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessment findings for gastritis would reveal anorexia, nausea and vomiting, epigastric fullness and tenderness, and discomfort. Evisceration is the extrusion of abdominal viscera as a result of trauma or sutures failing in a surgical incision. Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneum, can occur when an abdominal organ, such as the gallbladder, perforates and leaks blood and fluid into the abdominal cavity. This causes infection and irritation. Assessment findings of pulmonary embolism would reveal severe substernal chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, shortness of breath, anxiety or panic, and wheezing and coughing often accompanied by blood-tinged sputum.
Question 3 of 5
An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with hemophilia. Which of the following diagnostic blood studies is characteristically abnormal in this disorder?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Partial thromboplastic time measures activity of thromboplastin, which depends on the intrinsic clotting factors deficient in children who are hemophiliacs. Platelet counts are normal in hemophilia. Hemophilia does not affect the complete blood count. Bleeding times are normal in hemophiliacs. They measure the time interval for the bleeding from small superficial wounds to cease.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old client has a T-4 spinal cord injury. At present, he is learning to catheterize himself. When he says, 'This is too much trouble. I would rather just have a Foley.' An appropriate response for the RN teaching him would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: This response validates the client's feelings, provides education on reduced infection risk with intermittent catheterization, and encourages autonomy.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following findings would necessitate discontinuing an IV potassium infusion in an adult with ketoacidosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Adequate renal flow of 30 mL/hr is a necessity with potassium infusions because potassium is excreted renally. Because potassium level will decrease during correction of diabetic ketoacidosis, potassium will be infused even if plasma levels of potassium are normal. A small T wave is normal and desired on the electrocardiogram. A tall, peaked T-wave could indicate overinfusion of potassium and hyperkalemia. Glucose levels of <200 are desirable.