NCLEX-RN
Med Surg RN NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
When teaching a client newly diagnosed with primary Addison's disease, the nurse should explain that the disease results from:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary Addison's disease is caused by idiopathic adrenal gland atrophy, leading to deficient cortisol and aldosterone production.
Question 2 of 5
A client is admitted to the emergency department with a full thickness burn to his right arm. Upon assessment, the arm is edema, the agent is mottled, and radial pulse is now absent. The client states that the pain is 8 on a scale of 1 to 10 . The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The absence of the radial pulse indicates potential compartment syndrome or vascular compromise, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate physician notification to prevent tissue necrosis.
Question 3 of 5
A 20-year-old who hit his head while playing football has a tonic-clonic seizure. Upon awakening from the seizure, the client asks the nurse, "What caused me to have a seizure? I've never had one before." Which cause should the nurse include in the response as a primary cause of tonic-clonic seizures in adults older than age 20?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Head trauma is a primary cause of seizures in adults over 20, especially in the context of a recent injury. Electrolyte imbalances, congenital defects, or epilepsy are less likely without additional history.
Question 4 of 5
Bed rest is prescribed for a client with pneumonia during the acute phase of the illness. The nurse should determine the effectiveness of bed rest by assessing the client's:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bed rest reduces oxygen demand by decreasing metabolic rate, aiding recovery in pneumonia. Reduced coughing, diminished pain, and easier expectoration are secondary benefits but not the primary measure of bed rest effectiveness.
Question 5 of 5
A client is to receive glargine (Lantus) insulin in addition to a dose of aspart (NovoLog). When the nurse checks the blood glucose level at the bedside, it is greater than 200 mg/dL. How should the nurse administer the insulins?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glargine and aspart insulins cannot be mixed. They should be drawn up in separate syringes to maintain their distinct actions (long-acting vs. rapid-acting). Shaking or rolling is inappropriate for glargine, which is clear.