NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 12 weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication and may be used until the lithium takes effect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a fractured rib. The client complains of sharp chest pain. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sharp chest pain with a fractured rib may indicate complications like pneumothorax, requiring immediate physician notification. Compresses, breathing, and ibuprofen are insufficient.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse will be alert to the most potentially life-threatening side effect associated with the administration of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor. This is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oculogyric crisis, involuntary upward deviation and fixation of the eyeballs, is usually associated with either postencephalitic parkinsonian or drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). Hypertensive crisis is a potentially life-threatening side effect. This may occur if the client ingests foods, beverages, or medications containing tyramine. Orthostatic hypotension, a drop in blood pressure resulting from a rapid change of body position, can occur with the administration of antidepressants. Tardive dyskinesia, characterized by slow, rhythmical, automatic or stereotyped muscular movements, usually is associated with the administration of certain antipsychotic medications.
Question 4 of 5
The client is admitted with a suspected deep vein thrombosis. Which diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Venous ultrasound is the most effective test to confirm deep vein thrombosis, visualizing clots in the veins. D-dimer is sensitive but not specific, and chest X-ray and ABGs are irrelevant.
Question 5 of 5
A 75-year-old client is hospitalized with pneumonia caused by gram-positive bacteria. Which one of the following best describes a gram-positive bacterial pneumonia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Klebsiella pneumonia is caused by gram-negative bacteria. Pneumococcal pneumonia is caused by gram-positive bacteria. Legionella pneumophila pneumonia is a nonbacterial pneumonia. E. coli pneumonia is caused by gram-negative bacteria.