NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Question Bank Free Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A new mother was administered methylergonovine maleate intramuscularly after delivery. The nurse understands that this medication was administered for which action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Methylergonovine maleate, an oxytocic, is an agent used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. The first dose is usually administered intramuscularly, and then if it needs to be continued, it is given by mouth. It increases the strength and frequency of contractions and may elevate blood pressure. There is no relationship between the action of this medication and lochia drainage.
Question 2 of 5
Place the following phases of crisis in the correct sequential order. Order each response with a number from first to last, with #1 as the first phase of crisis to #4 which is the fourth phase of crisis. 1. The signs and symptoms of the General Adaptation Syndrome 2. Detachment and disorientation 3. Trying alternative methods of coping 4. The use of psychological ego defense mechanisms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence of crisis phases typically follows: 1) General Adaptation Syndrome (initial stress response), 2) Detachment and disorientation (emotional response), 3) Trying alternative coping methods (problem-solving attempts), and 4) Use of psychological ego defense mechanisms (if coping fails). This reflects the progression of a crisis response.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a manic phase. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A quiet environment reduces stimuli, helping to calm a client in a manic phase.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a moderate level of anxiety is pacing quickly in the hall. As the nurse approaches, he states, 'Help me. I can't take it anymore.' Which of the following would be the best response initially?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Offering to talk in a quieter area de-escalates anxiety and provides a supportive environment.
Question 5 of 5
The mother of a neonate delivered at 36 weeks' gestation asks why the neonate is being treated for sepsis when no infection is present. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Treating a 36-week neonate for sepsis is often precautionary due to their increased risk of infection, even without confirmed infection, to prevent complications.