NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Predictor Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 16-22%. Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells. Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin. Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.
Question 2 of 5
Place in sequence the correct method of removal of contaminated personal protective equipment.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, A
Rationale:
To remove PPE safely: First, remove gloves (
B) to avoid contaminating hands. Next, remove the gown (
C) by pulling it away from the body.
Then, remove eyewear (
D) by handling the sides. Finally, remove the mask (
A) by touching only the ties to prevent respiratory exposure.
Question 3 of 5
A client had a renal transplant 3 months ago. He has suddenly developed graft tenderness, an increased white blood cell count, and malaise. The client is experiencing which type of rejection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The sudden development of fever, graft tenderness, increased white blood count, and malaise are signs and symptoms of an acute rejection that commonly occurs at 3 months.
Question 4 of 5
A 68-year-old man was recently diagnosed with endstage renal disease. He has not yet begun dialysis but is experiencing severe anemia with associated symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. Which statement best describes the management of anemia in renal failure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients in renal failure typically have very low hematocrits, often in the range of 16-22%. Transfusion is avoided unless the client exhibits acute symptoms such as dyspnea, chest pain, tachycardia, and extreme fatigue. When the client is given a transfusion, the bone marrow adjusts by producing less red blood cells. Anemia in renal failure is caused primarily by decreased erythropoietin. Low serum iron and ferritin may aggravate the anemia and require treatment. Decreased secretion of erythropoietin by the kidney is the primary cause of anemia. The bone marrow requires this hormone to mature red blood cells. Treatment is with replacement therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A 2-year-old child is recovering from surgery. Considering growth and development according to Erikson, the nurse identifies which of the following play activities as most appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A 2-year-old child is in the stage of autonomy, according to Erikson. Assembling a puzzle with large pieces enables her to 'do it herself.' A wheelchair ride would probably be fun, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. Listening to a story may be fun and educational, but it is not directed toward helping the child to achieve autonomy. Watching television may be a favorite activity, but it does not foster autonomy.