HESI RN
Care Hope College RN HESI Pharmacology Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Before administering the evening dose of carbamazepine, the nurse notes that the patient’s morning carbamazepine level was 84 mcg/mL. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbamazepine’s therapeutic range is 4-12 mcg/mL; 84 mcg/mL (
A) indicates toxicity risk, requiring provider notification. Administering (
B) or withholding (
C) without consultation is unsafe. Assessing side effects (
D) is secondary to reporting.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a patient who is taking ciprofloxacin hydrochloride tablets due to suspected anthrax exposure. What instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin requires high fluid intake (
B) to prevent crystalluria, immediate reporting of tendon pain/swelling (
D) due to rupture risk, and sun protection (E) due to photosensitivity. Crushing tablets (
A) alters release, risking side effects. NSAIDs (
C) increase seizure risk with ciprofloxacin.
Question 3 of 5
A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus has been prescribed a glucagon emergency kit for home use. When should the nurse instruct the patient and family that glucagon needs to be administered?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glucagon treats severe hypoglycemia (
B) by mobilizing liver glucose stores. It’s not for preventing hyperglycemia (
A), sick-day management (
C), or diabetic ketoacidosis (
D), which requires insulin and medical intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with nasal congestion has been prescribed phenylephrine 10 mg by mouth every 4 hours. What patient condition should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Phenylephrine, a decongestant, can raise blood pressure, making hypertension (
A) a contraindication requiring provider consultation. Bronchitis (
B), diarrhea (
C), and edema (
D) are not directly affected by phenylephrine.
Question 5 of 5
After taking orlistat for one week, a female patient tells the home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily stools and gas. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orlistat inhibits fat absorption, causing oily stools and gas if dietary fat is high. Assessing dietary intake (
A) identifies the cause. Stopping the drug (
B) is premature. Increasing fats (
C) worsens symptoms. Stool testing (
D) is unnecessary for known side effects.