HESI Pharmacology | Nurselytic

Questions 46

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HESI Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

On admission, the healthcare provider describes a broad spectrum of antibiotic, ticarcillin for a client with a gram-negative infection. Before administering the first dose, it is most important for the nurse to implement which prescription?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Culture and sensitivity tests (
B) identify the causative organism and effective antibiotic, preventing resistance from premature broad-spectrum use like ticarcillin. Monitoring sodium/fluid (
A), wound care (
C), and labs (
D) are secondary.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is taking ciprofloxacin hydrochloride tablets which were prescribed because of a suspected anthrax exposure. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A,D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, risks tendonitis/tendon rupture (
A), requiring immediate reporting, especially in older adults or those on corticosteroids. It causes photosensitivity (
D), necessitating sun protection. NSAIDs (
B) increase seizure risk, not recommended. Crushing tablets (
C) alters efficacy and is contraindicated.

Question 3 of 5

An older adult client with restless legs syndrome begins taking melatonin at bedtime. When evaluating the effectiveness of the herb which client assessment should the nurse complete?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Melatonin regulates sleep-wake cycles and may reduce restless legs syndrome symptoms by improving sleep. Assessing sleep patterns (
C) evaluates effectiveness. Anxiety (
A), edema (
B), and pulses (
D) are unrelated.

Question 4 of 5

A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL (
C) directly confirms improved anemia. Energy levels (
A) are subjective, iron therapy (
B) supports but doesn’t prove efficacy, and diet (
D) is supplementary.

Question 5 of 5

A client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose. Which assessment provides the nurse with the nest information to evaluate the client’s therapeutic response to the drug?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia absorption in hepatic encephalopathy. Serum electrolytes and ammonia levels (
B) assess therapeutic response. Glucose (
A), stool (
C), and hepatic enzymes (
D) are less direct.

Similar Questions

An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets. To promote the best absorption of the medication, which information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?
The nurse is providing instructions about a client’s new medication. How should the nurse explain the purpose of probenecid, a uricosuric drug?
Prior to administering the evening dose of carbamazepine, the nurse noted that the client’s morning carbamazepine level was 8.4 mg/L. Which action should the nurse take?
Prior to administering oral doses of calcitriol and calcium carbonate to a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the total level of calcium is 14 mg/dL (3.5 mmol/L). Which action should the nurse implement?
The home health nurse observes a client self-administering an epinephrine injection using an auto-injector pen. Which client action requires intervention by the nurse?

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