HESI RN
HESI RN Patho Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client received midazolam 2 mg and morphine sulfate 4 mg for a liver biopsy. After the procedure, the nurse positions the client on the right side and monitors the vital signs. Which is the physiological reason for the nurse’s intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positioning on the right side (
A) applies pressure to the liver biopsy site, promoting hemostasis and reducing bleeding risk, as the liver is on the right. Aspiration prevention (
B) is relevant during anesthesia recovery, not post-biopsy. Pain management (
C) involves analgesics, not positioning. Pulmonary expansion (
D) is achieved via breathing exercises, not side-lying.
Question 2 of 5
A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) develops a gangrenous toe and is admitted for possible amputation. Which pathophysiological consequence of DM has contributed to this client’s complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy (
C) from prolonged hyperglycemia damages sensory nerves, reducing pain perception and leading to unnoticed foot injuries, infections, and gangrene. CKD (
A) affects kidneys, not directly causing gangrene. Retinopathy (
B) impacts eyes. Hypertension (
D) exacerbates vascular issues but is secondary to neuropathy in this context.
Question 3 of 5
An older male reports to the clinic nurse that he sometimes feels chest pressure and becomes breathless. He further describes an event where he had to sit for about one hour before he felt better. He is asymptomatic at rest, but is concerned that he has had a heart attack. This clinical picture is consistent with which cardiac ischemic event?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stable angina (
C) causes predictable chest pressure with exertion, relieved by rest, as described. MI (
A) involves prolonged pain and necrosis, not relieved by rest. Unstable angina (
B) occurs at rest or with increasing severity. Prinzmetal angina (
D) is due to coronary spasm, often at rest with ECG changes.
Question 4 of 5
A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HPV (
C), especially high-risk strains (16, 18), is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer, causing cellular changes in the cervix. HSV (
A) may increase HPV acquisition risk but isn’t directly causative. Vulvovaginitis (
B) and yeast infections (
D) cause inflammation but lack a direct link to cervical cancer.
Question 5 of 5
Two days after admission for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an older client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) indicate an acid base imbalance. The client’s laboratory results reveal a low hemoglobin level, an elevated creatinine clearance, and decreased urine specific gravity. Which is the most likely cause for the acid base imbalance?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic renal insufficiency (
C) causes metabolic acidosis due to impaired acid excretion and bicarbonate regulation, consistent with low hemoglobin (anemia), elevated creatinine clearance (renal dysfunction), and low urine specific gravity (poor concentration). Prior MI (
A) is unrelated. Antacids (
B) don’t cause acidosis. Exertional dyspnea (
D) may cause respiratory acidosis, not metabolic.