HESI RN
HESI RN D441 Pharmacology 0A1 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with anemia secondary to chronic kidney disease (CKD) started a prescription for epoetin alfa two months ago. Which client finding best indicates that the medication is effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most direct indicator of the effectiveness of epoetin alfa is an increase in hemoglobin levels. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, raising hemoglobin in clients with anemia due to CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin provides objective evidence of the medication’s efficacy, unlike subjective reports or dietary changes.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse administers naloxone to a client with opioid-induced respiratory depression. One hour later, nursing assessment reveals that the client has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unable to be aroused. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone has a shorter half-life than most opioids, so opioid-induced respiratory depression may persist. The client’s severe symptoms (respiratory rate of 4 breaths/min, oxygen saturation of 75%, unresponsiveness) indicate the initial dose was insufficient. Administering a second dose of naloxone is the priority to reverse the opioid effects and address the life-threatening hypoxia.
Question 3 of 5
The healthcare provider prescribes propylthiouracil (PTU) and Lugol's solution, a strong iodine solution, for a client with hyperthyroidism. How should the nurse schedule the administration of these medications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering Lugol's solution one hour before PTU allows iodine to suppress thyroid hormone release before PTU takes effect, enhancing therapeutic outcomes in hyperthyroidism. PTU should be taken on an empty stomach, and the medications should not be given together or at bedtime without specific timing considerations.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client who was recently diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and is taking carbidopa-levodopa. The client is concerned that the medication is not working. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exploring what the client means by 'is not working' is the first step to clarify their concerns, symptoms, or misconceptions about carbidopa-levodopa’s effects. This guides further assessment and education, addressing the client’s specific issues before evaluating side effects or administration timing.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is taking dextroamphetamine-amphetamine extended-release tablets for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), reports about having difficulty sleeping at night. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The timing of dextroamphetamine-amphetamine administration is critical, as taking it late in the day can cause insomnia due to its stimulant effects. Assessing the dose timing helps identify if adjustments are needed to improve sleep, making it the most important initial assessment.