HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a new mother who is breastfeeding her term newborn. The newborn weighed 3.4 kg (7.5 lb) at birth and weighs 3.3 kg (7.3 lb) on the second day of life. The mother expresses concern about the weight loss and asks the nurse about the amount of her breast milk. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A healthy newborn can lose up to 6% of their birth weight within the first few days of life, which is considered normal. This weight loss is usually due to fluid shifts and initial adjustments.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.
Choice A is inappropriate as switching to formula is not necessary at this point.
Choice B, while acknowledging the mother's concerns, does not provide factual information about newborn weight loss.
Choice D is unnecessary and may cause unnecessary stress to the mother and newborn since monitoring weight loss at home is sufficient unless there are other concerns.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
Question 4 of 5
When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (
Choice
A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (
Choice
B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (
Choice
D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
Question 5 of 5
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention.
Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum.
Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever.
Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.