HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is admitted for hypovolemia associated with multiple draining wounds. Which assessment would be the most accurate way for the nurse to evaluate fluid balance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight is the most easily obtained and accurate means of assessing volume status. Skin turgor varies considerably with age and can be affected by various factors other than fluid balance. Presence of edema indicates excess fluid has moved into the interstitial space, which may not always be directly correlated with overall fluid balance. Hourly urine outputs, though important, do not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid balance as they do not consider fluid intake, insensible losses, or other sources of fluid loss.
Question 2 of 5
A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, where there is a conflict between the client's significant other and estranged husband, the most appropriate intervention is to request a consultation with the ethics committee for resolution. This ensures that an impartial body can assess the situation, consider the rights and preferences of all parties involved, and provide guidance on how to proceed in a fair and ethical manner. Obtaining a court order (
Choice
A) may be a legal option but should be considered after exhausting other conflict resolution methods. Involving security (
Choice
C) may escalate the situation and should only be considered if there is a risk of harm. Discussing boundaries with the client (
Choice
D) is important but may not immediately address the current conflict between the significant other and the husband.
Question 3 of 5
A patient who is lethargic and exhibits deep, rapid respirations has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.32, PaO2 88 mm Hg, PaCO2 37 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's pH is below the normal range (7.35-7.45), and the HCO3 is also below the normal range (22-26 mEq/L), indicating an acidic environment, which is consistent with metabolic acidosis. The ABGs provided do not support respiratory acidosis or alkalosis, as the PaCO2 is within the normal range (35-45 mm Hg) despite the patient's deep, rapid respirations.
Therefore, the correct interpretation is metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 5
When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.
Question 5 of 5
An adult who has recurrent episodes of depression tells the nurse that the prescribed antidepressant needs to be discontinued because the client is feeling better after taking the medication for the past couple of weeks and does not like the side effects. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to inform the client that gradual tapering must be used to discontinue the medication. Abrupt cessation of antidepressants can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a recurrence of depressive symptoms.
Choice A is not the best response as it does not address the need for a proper discontinuation plan.
Choice C is not the best response as it focuses solely on the side effects and does not address the discontinuation process.
Choice D is not the best response because while side effects may diminish over time, the focus here should be on the safe discontinuation of the medication to prevent adverse effects.