HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse at a provider's office is reinforcing teaching with a client who is being treated with chemotherapy and is losing weight. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give to increase the client's caloric intake? (Select one that doesn't apply).
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Increasing fluids during meals does not directly contribute to increasing caloric intake. Topping yogurt with granola, using honey on toast, and using milk instead of water in recipes are effective ways to boost caloric intake. While adequate fluid intake is important for hydration and overall health, it does not address the specific need to increase caloric intake in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
Question 4 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.
Question 5 of 9
After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client following the surgical placement of a colostomy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Yogurt contains probiotics which can help reduce gas and odor in colostomy patients. Choice B is incorrect because pasta is a low-fiber food that can help thicken stools, which may be beneficial for colostomy patients. Choice C is incorrect because it is generally recommended for colostomy patients to have their largest meal earlier in the day to allow for better digestion. Choice D is incorrect because carbonated beverages can actually increase gas production and worsen odor in colostomy patients.
Question 7 of 9
When another nurse enters the room in response to a call, after checking the client's pulse and respirations during CPR on an adult in cardiopulmonary arrest, what should be the function of the second nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to participate in compressions or breathing. This is essential to ensure continuous and effective CPR. Relieving the nurse performing CPR (Choice A) is not recommended as it can interrupt the life-saving procedure. Going to get the code cart (Choice B) may be necessary in certain situations but should not take precedence over providing immediate assistance in CPR. Validating the client's advanced directive (Choice D) is not the primary role in this scenario where urgent action is needed to support the client's circulation and breathing.
Question 8 of 9
What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.
Question 9 of 9
A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.