HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Constipation is a common side effect of Tylenol #3, which contains codeine. Codeine can slow down bowel movements, leading to constipation. Monitoring for constipation and implementing management strategies is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because bruising at the operative site, elevated heart rate, and decreased platelet count are not commonly associated side effects of Tylenol #3.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving intravenous heparin therapy. What medication should the nurse have available in the event of an overdose of heparin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin overdose. It works by neutralizing the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Amicar (Choice B) is used to treat excessive bleeding due to elevated fibrinolytic activity and is not the antidote for heparin overdose. Imferon (Choice C) is an iron supplement and is not indicated for heparin overdose. Diltiazem (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina, not for heparin overdose. Therefore, the correct choice is Protamine (Choice A).
Question 4 of 5
An 86-year-old nursing home resident who has decreased mental status is hospitalized with pneumonic infiltrates in the right lower lobe. When the nurse assists the client with a clear liquid diet, the client begins to cough. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex is the appropriate action in this scenario. It helps assess the client's ability to swallow safely without the risk of aspiration. Adding a thickening agent to the fluids (Choice A) may be considered later if swallowing difficulties persist. Feeding the client only solid foods (Choice C) can increase the risk of aspiration in this case, and increasing the rate of intravenous fluids (Choice D) does not address the swallowing concern.
Question 5 of 5
After a client has an enteral feeding tube inserted, the most accurate method for verification of placement is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After the insertion of an enteral feeding tube, the most accurate method for verifying its placement is by aspirating gastric contents. This method ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach. Abdominal x-ray can provide additional confirmation but is not as immediate or practical. Auscultation and flushing the tube with saline are not as reliable as aspirating gastric contents for verifying proper placement of an enteral feeding tube.