HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.
Question 2 of 5
A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase.
Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.
Question 3 of 5
When performing a health history on a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics block uric acid secretion, leading to elevated levels that can contribute to gout.
Therefore, patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution. Asthma (
Choice
A), Glaucoma (
Choice
B), and Hypertension (
Choice
D) are not directly contraindicated with thiazide diuretics, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity.
Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.
Question 5 of 5
A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body.
Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.