HESI RN
Nutrition HESI Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.
Question 2 of 9
The client is preparing for a myelogram. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a contraindication for this test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An allergy to shrimp is a contraindication for a myelogram because the contrast dye used in the procedure contains iodine, which can trigger allergic reactions in individuals allergic to shellfish. Choices A, C, and D are not contraindications for a myelogram. Inability to lie still for an extended period, claustrophobia, or a previous headache after a spinal tap are concerns that can be managed during the procedure but do not necessarily prevent the test from being performed.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility. Which client is at highest risk for the development of decubitus ulcers?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A malnourished client on bed rest is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to a combination of factors such as poor nutritional status and immobility. Malnourished individuals have compromised skin integrity, making them more susceptible to pressure ulcers. Being on bed rest further exacerbates this risk as constant pressure on bony prominences can lead to tissue damage. Although the other choices may also be at risk for developing decubitus ulcers, the malnourished client on bed rest presents the highest risk due to the combination of malnutrition and immobility.
Question 4 of 9
A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds, the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Coughing up foul-tasting, brown, thick sputum suggests a possible abscess or secondary infection, requiring attention. Choice A may indicate pleurisy, but the focus should be on the sputum. Choice C may be non-specific and could be related to the infection or fever. Choice D is non-specific and may be expected during an infection.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which of these assessments is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site is the priority when caring for a client with a chest tube. Infection at the insertion site can lead to serious complications such as empyema or sepsis. Monitoring respiratory status is essential but assessing for infection takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema is important but not the priority unless it compromises respiratory function. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions is crucial for proper drainage but is not the priority when infection is a concern.
Question 6 of 9
A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
Question 8 of 9
A client is receiving treatment for hypertension. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute is within normal limits; however, changes in breathing patterns can indicate respiratory distress, which is concerning, especially in a client receiving treatment for hypertension. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute may not be alarming if the client is at rest. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range for a healthy adult. A temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit is also considered normal, showing no immediate cause for concern in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.