HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5 Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.
Question 2 of 5
Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
What is the lowest fasting plasma glucose level suggestive of a diagnosis of DM?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.
Question 4 of 5
What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.