Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

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Question 1 of 9

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.

Question 2 of 9

When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

Question 3 of 9

In a patient with liver cirrhosis, which of the following lab results would be expected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with liver cirrhosis, increased bilirubin levels would be expected. Liver cirrhosis leads to impaired liver function, causing a decrease in the liver's ability to process bilirubin, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This results in elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased albumin levels (choice B) may occur in liver cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of proteins, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels. Increased liver enzymes (choice C) can be seen in liver damage but are not as characteristic as elevated bilirubin levels. Decreased platelet count (choice D) can occur in liver cirrhosis due to hypersplenism, but it is not as specific as increased bilirubin levels in this context.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely before, during, and after the procedure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level. Before, during, and after hemodialysis, monitoring the serum potassium level is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening complication. Hemodialysis is done to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring other laboratory values like hemoglobin, BUN, and creatinine is important in assessing kidney function and anemia, but serum potassium level requires close monitoring during hemodialysis due to the risk of rapid shifts that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 5 of 9

What do crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard on lung auscultation are caused by the popping open of small airways that are filled with fluid. This is commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or heart failure. Cyanosis (Choice A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, not directly related to crackles. Bronchospasm (Choice B) refers to the constriction of the airway smooth muscle, causing difficulty in breathing but does not typically produce crackles. Airway narrowing (Choice C) can lead to wheezing but is not directly linked to crackles heard on auscultation.

Question 6 of 9

Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to be seen in a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, hyperkalemia is the most common electrolyte imbalance due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. This impaired kidney function leads to potassium retention in the body, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys typically still function to regulate sodium levels. Hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) is not a prominent electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease unless there are additional factors involved. Hypokalemia (low potassium levels) is less common in chronic kidney disease, as the primary issue is usually potassium retention rather than deficiency.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.

Question 8 of 9

Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

Question 9 of 9

What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction to improve oxygenation. Oxygen helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, reducing the workload on the heart. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions in the treatment of MI; however, oxygen administration takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygenation. Morphine may be considered for pain relief, but it is not the initial priority in the treatment of a suspected MI.

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