When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray?

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Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient's food tray?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

Question 2 of 5

An older patient receiving iso-osmolar continuous tube feedings develops restlessness, agitation, and weakness. Which laboratory result should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The elevated serum sodium level (154 mEq/L) is consistent with the patient's neurologic symptoms of restlessness, agitation, and weakness, indicating a need for immediate action to prevent complications like seizures. The potassium level (3.4 mEq/L) and calcium level (7.8 mg/dL) are slightly off from normal but do not require immediate action. The phosphate level (4.8 mg/dL) is normal and not related to the symptoms presented by the patient.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is assessing a newly admitted patient with chronic heart failure who forgot to take prescribed medications and seems confused. The patient complains of "just blowing up" and has peripheral edema and shortness of breath. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Increases in extracellular fluid (ECF) can lead to swelling of cells in the central nervous system, initially causing confusion, which may progress to coma or seizures. Although skin turgor, capillary refill, and heart sounds also may be affected by increases in ECF, these are signs that do not have as immediate impact on patient outcomes as cerebral edema.

Question 4 of 5

A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient's respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse's first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

Question 5 of 5

A patient has a serum calcium level of 7.0 mEq/L. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A - 'The patient is experiencing laryngeal stridor.' Hypocalcemia can cause laryngeal stridor, which may lead to respiratory arrest. Rapid action is required to correct the patient's calcium level to prevent a life-threatening situation. Choices B, C, and D are also symptoms of hypocalcemia, but laryngeal stridor takes precedence due to its potential to quickly progress to a critical condition.

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