When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, Nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). Sulfisoxazole is known to potentiate hypoglycemia, making it unsafe for clients with a history of hypoglycemia. Choice B, Mexiletine, is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm problems and is not associated with hypoglycemia. Choice C, Prednisone, is a corticosteroid and does not potentiate hypoglycemia. Choice D, Lithium carbonate, is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder and does not typically potentiate hypoglycemia. Therefore, the drug that Nurse Ruby should avoid in this case is Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) to prevent worsening the client's hypoglycemic condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals. This instruction is essential because glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication that works by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin in response to food intake. Taking it before meals ensures that the medication's peak action aligns with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, thus optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Option B is incorrect because glipizide does not cause low serum sodium levels; rather, it can lead to hypoglycemia due to its blood glucose-lowering effects. Monitoring blood glucose levels and not sodium levels is crucial. Option C is incorrect as the client must continue to monitor their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to assess the medication's efficacy and adjust the dosage if needed. Option D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal may not align with its mechanism of action, potentially leading to suboptimal control of blood glucose levels. From an educational perspective, understanding the timing of medication administration in relation to meals is crucial for nurses managing clients with diabetes. Proper medication administration plays a significant role in achieving therapeutic outcomes and avoiding complications such as hypoglycemia. Nurses must provide clear and accurate medication instructions to empower clients to manage their condition effectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A fasting plasma glucose level of 126 mg/dl or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Choice A (90 mg/dl) is too low to indicate diabetes. Choice B (115 mg/dl) is also below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Choice D (180 mg/dl) is above the diagnostic threshold and would indicate uncontrolled diabetes, not the lowest level suggestive of a diagnosis.