HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 9
When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is essential to drain secretions and prevent aspiration. This position helps facilitate the removal of secretions from the airways, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the primary reason for elevating the head of the bed in ARDS is to assist with secretion drainage and prevent complications associated with aspiration.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which of the following interventions is a priority to maintain client safety?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the correct placement of a nasogastric tube before each feeding is essential to prevent aspiration and ensure that the tube is properly positioned in the stomach or intestine. This action is a priority to maintain client safety. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours is important for tube patency but is not the priority over verifying placement. Securing the tube with tape and keeping the head of the bed elevated are crucial but are considered secondary measures compared to confirming the correct tube placement.
Question 3 of 9
An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.
Question 4 of 9
A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.
Question 5 of 9
During an acute exacerbation of asthma, what is the nurse's first action for a client experiencing this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action when managing an acute exacerbation of asthma is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve breathing in individuals experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Reassuring the client and encouraging deep breathing (Choice C) can be beneficial but should come after administering the bronchodilator. Providing emotional support to reduce anxiety (Choice D) is important but is not the initial priority in managing an acute exacerbation of asthma.
Question 6 of 9
A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.
Question 7 of 9
A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.
Question 8 of 9
A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.
Question 9 of 9
A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.