HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
When caring for a client with a post right thoracotomy who has undergone an upper lobectomy, the nurse focuses on pain management to promote
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Effective pain management encourages deep breathing and coughing, which are crucial for preventing complications after thoracic surgery. These actions help prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis, promote lung expansion, and improve oxygenation. While relaxation and sleep are important for recovery, the priority after a thoracotomy and lobectomy is to prevent respiratory issues. Incisional healing is important but not the primary focus immediately post-surgery. Range of motion exercises are not directly related to promoting recovery after thoracic surgery.
Question 2 of 9
A client wants to increase her daily intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Soybean oil. Soybean oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Blueberries (choice A), citrus fruits (choice C), and green tea (choice D) are not significant sources of omega-3 fatty acids. Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, citrus fruits provide vitamin C, and green tea contains polyphenols, but they do not offer a substantial amount of omega-3 fatty acids compared to soybean oil.
Question 3 of 9
A client is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia. What type of isolation is most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Contact.' Contact precautions are necessary for clients with MRSA pneumonia to prevent the spread of the resistant bacteria. MRSA is primarily spread by direct contact, so using contact precautions, such as wearing gloves and gowns, is essential. Choice A, 'Reverse,' is not a type of isolation precaution. Choice B, 'Airborne,' is not the appropriate isolation for MRSA pneumonia, as MRSA is not transmitted through the airborne route. Choice C, 'Standard precautions,' are important for all clients, but for MRSA pneumonia specifically, contact precautions are more targeted and necessary.
Question 4 of 9
After a client was taken off the ventilator following surgery, they have a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure to provide comfort to a client with a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. This measure helps to maintain oral hygiene, prevent dryness, and enhance overall comfort. Allowing the client to suck on ice chips may not address oral hygiene needs, providing mints focuses more on breath freshness rather than comfort, and swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not effectively address oral care needs.
Question 5 of 9
During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.
Question 6 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being treated with anticoagulants. Which of these findings is most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because pain and swelling in the calf can indicate a new or worsening DVT, requiring immediate attention. Bruising on the arms and legs may be a common side effect of anticoagulants but is not as concerning as a potential DVT. Severe headache may indicate other conditions like a migraine or hypertension and is not directly related to DVT. Increased urination is not typically associated with DVT and may point towards other health issues like diabetes or urinary tract infections.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of coronary artery disease is admitted with chest pain. Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute may indicate respiratory distress in a client with chest pain. In a client with a history of coronary artery disease presenting with chest pain, signs of respiratory distress can be an alarming finding. Blood pressure within the normal range (130/80 mm Hg), heart rate of 72 beats per minute, and a temperature of 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit are generally considered within normal limits and may not be as concerning in this context.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of pancreatitis should avoid which of the following food choices?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clients with pancreatitis should avoid high-fat foods like cheddar cheese as they can exacerbate symptoms. Noodles, vegetable soup, and baked fish are generally lower in fat and may be better tolerated by clients with pancreatitis.
Question 9 of 9
In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.