HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postoperative arrhythmias are a common and potentially serious complication after cardiac surgery, making them a priority to monitor. Assessing for postoperative arrhythmias takes precedence over other assessments like checking nail beds for color and refill, auscultating for pulmonary congestion, or monitoring peripheral pulses as arrhythmias can have immediate and severe implications for the child's health.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old with acute glomerulonephritis (AGN). Findings include moderate edema and oliguria. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are elevated. What dietary modifications are most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased sodium and potassium.' In acute glomerulonephritis, managing edema and oliguria is crucial. Reducing sodium and potassium intake helps achieve this by decreasing fluid retention and workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Decreased carbohydrates and fat,' is not directly related to managing AGN. Choice C, 'Increased potassium and protein,' is incorrect as increasing potassium can be harmful in kidney conditions. Choice D, 'Increased sodium and fluids,' is also incorrect as it can exacerbate edema and hypertension in AGN.
Question 4 of 5
A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.
Question 5 of 5
A client with diabetes is being educated about the dietary source that should provide the greatest percentage of their calories. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In diabetes management, complex carbohydrates should constitute the largest portion of the diet as they help in maintaining steady energy levels and managing blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because a high-fat diet can lead to complications in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as simple sugars can cause rapid spikes in blood sugar levels. Choice D is incorrect as protein, while important, should not be the main source of calories for a diabetic individual.
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