HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Question 2 of 9
A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most critical assessment findings in a client with cirrhosis. These symptoms may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis but are not as urgent as addressing altered mental status and confusion.
Question 3 of 9
A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The statement 'I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don't have symptoms' indicates a misunderstanding. Antacids should only be taken when symptoms are present to neutralize excess stomach acid. Taking antacids regularly when not experiencing symptoms may lead to metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements for a client with peptic ulcer disease as they all focus on avoiding irritants that can exacerbate the condition.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client with hypertension receives a prescription for enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI). Which instruction should the nurse include in the medication teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the medication teaching plan for a client receiving enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is to 'Report increased bruising or bleeding.' ACE inhibitors can cause thrombocytopenia, which can lead to an increased risk of bruising and bleeding. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, stopping medication if a cough develops, and limiting intake of leafy green vegetables are not directly related to the common side effects or actions of ACE inhibitors.
Question 6 of 9
The charge nurse observes a new nurse preparing to insert an intravenous (IV) catheter. The new nurse has gathered supplies, including intravenous catheters, an intravenous insertion kit, and a 4x4 sterile gauze dressing to cover and secure the insertion site. What action should the charge nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the nurse to use a transparent dressing over the site. Transparent dressings allow for continuous observation of the IV site, reducing the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because the charge nurse should intervene to ensure the new nurse follows best practices. Choice C is incorrect as the charge nurse should not just assist but provide guidance on the correct procedure. Choice D is incorrect because the size of the dressing is not the issue; it's the type of dressing that allows for better observation.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.
Question 8 of 9
The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.
Question 9 of 9
A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Severe abdominal distention is a sign of worsening pancreatitis and can indicate complications like bowel obstruction or fluid accumulation. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration. Decreased urine output (Choice B) could indicate renal impairment, decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) are expected in pancreatitis due to paralytic ileus, and an increased heart rate (Choice D) is a common response to pain or stress in acute pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless it is extremely high or persistent.